[kwlug-disc] [ot] voip question

Andrew Kohlsmith (mailing lists account) aklists at mixdown.ca
Mon Sep 20 11:22:29 EDT 2010

On Monday, September 20, 2010 10:14:49 am Insurance Squared Inc. wrote:
> When the caller ends up talking to me, I'm paying voip charges (fair
> enough) but the US company is also paying voip charges, since the
> original caller connected through their systems.
> Any way to cut the US company out of the loop on the phone charges when
> they connect through to me?

It depends.

The customer dialed a number; some company owns that number and no matter how 
long they're on the line for, the billing seconds for that number will 
(rightfully) accumulate.

Now, it sounds like this is the situation:
1. Customer calls 555-1212, this number is terminated at a voip provider.
2. Customer dials '1'
3. American company is placing a new voip call to 555-3434 to get to you
4. a PSTN call arrives at YOUR voip provider for 555-3434 and they route it.

If this is the case, you can avoid your SIP provider charging you for 
termination minutes by not using them. Why is the American company dialing 
your TELEPHONE number? Give them your SIP contact info and when '1' is pressed 
they can call you directly over the Internet. You won't be paying for voip 
termination since nobody's using your DID.

New (proposed) situation:
1. Customer calls 555-1212
2. Customer dials '1'
3. American PBX calls SIP/gcooke at some.ip.or.domain
4. A SIP call arrives at your home without your VOIP provider terminating 


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